For a long time I was satisfied with not understanding what the Bible taught on this subject. I saw the tension in the Bible between God's Sovereignty and our responsibility for our actions, but in my ignorance I thought the tension was greater than it really is. I saw the tension as being between God's predestination of those who would be saved, and the free will of everyone to choose or reject God. This appeared to me as a contradiction ("How can God have control and yet we have free choices?" I'd think), but I was willing to put this perception down to my lack of knowledge of the subject and leave it at that.

I have attended an AOG church all my life, as you might know they do not carry the belief in predestination nor did the church I attended talk much about it. We were studying Ephesians in our Sunday school class and the problem I found myself in was with how the speaker approached predestination while talking on chapter 1. I wanted to find out what exactly God was saying in his word about this topic and so I started to search and study the word every chance I got, I researched everything I could find on this topic from both point of views (Calvinism and Armenians) I searched for passages on the topic, read sites by Calvinists and Armenians, studied Bible passages on various topics in the area and put it all together. As I went through each topic I typed up summaries of what I found and what conclusions for that topic I came to. It turned into a huge project. After my extended study, I realized just how little I new on this important topic (it is after-all directly tied with the nature of God) I now put forward my conclusion and position on the issue. The conclusion of my study has required me to conclude that Calvinism on this topic is the correct position. May I add in love that I have also found Christians who don’t understand what Calvin taught to have distorted his biblically correct teachings? I would challenge you to complete your own study through the leadership of the Holy Spirit and through Prayer before you pass judgment.

passages which Christians disagree over.

John 6:37 (Jn6:35-51)

Armenians reply that "those given to me" in vs. 37 are the same as those who "believe in him" in vs. 40. In other words, when God foresees that some will believe, he gives them to Christ. See that in vs. 45, those who have "heard and learned from the Father" are the ones who "come to me."

Is this possible in the context of the passage?  Well the passage has no mention of God’s foreknowledge.  The interpretation of v. 45 is correct (it’s what the verse states), but then saying that those given to Christ are those fore-seen by God to believe is reading more than the passage says.  It is true the passage says that those given by the Father to Christ will be those who believe, but the passage makes no mention of whether they were fore-ordained or only fore-seen by God that they will believe.

In short this passage does not teach the doctrines of either Calvinism or Arminianism.  By itself it seems to fit into both doctrines.  Whether God foreordains or only foresees is determined elsewhere in Scripture.  But v. 37 seems to support the Calvinist doctrine of irresistible grace.  But again, it is not a good proof-text for either set of doctrines.

John 6:44,65 (Jn6:35-65)

Armenians agrees that these passages teach total depravity. However, they argue the Father draws all men to Christ (Jn. 12:32; 16:8).

They further hold that to assign the cause exclusively to the Father ignores vv. 29,35,40,47. To attribute the cause exclusively to the Father regardless of the response of the person flies in the face of the stated will of the Father in vs. 40 that "every one who beholds the Son and believes in him" be saved.

Finally, with regard to limited atonement and double-predestination, these are positions that depend on the earlier conclusion (unconditional election), and therefore beg the question.

Jn12:32 etc teaches that the Father draws all men to Christ is teaching that God is indiscriminate in His drawing of men to Him (i.e. He does not judge according to race etc).  This is shown by the context the verse 12:32 is in.  Jesus saying this would have been prompted by the presence of Greeks (v. 20).  So to say that v. 44 is because everyone is totally depraved is correct in light of the rest of Scripture.  Romans 3:10-12 etc show that no-one chooses God, so no-one comes to Jesus unless God draws them because they can’t choose Him on their own (i.e. Calvinism is correct here).

The second paragraph sums up those verses well with v. 40: “For this is the will of My Father, that everyone who beholds the Son and believes in Him will have eternal life…”  This is not ignored.  The Armenians rightly demand we read in context but what about v.39?  It says that it is the Father’s will that Jesus lose none that the Father has given Him.  So vv. 39&40 are clearly saying that it is the Father’s will that Jesus will not lose any of the people which God gives Him, and that those people will have eternal life.  Clearly those who believe in vv. 29, 35, 40 & 47 are those whom God has chosen and given to Jesus.

The final paragraph is a fair comment, but the Armenian view just doesn’t hold up, especially in light of the rest of Scripture.

John 15:16 (Jn15:12-17)

Armenians point out that the statement is made to the disciples with reference to their apostleship, not to their salvation. This interpretation accords well with the next phrase "that you should go and bear fruit, and that your fruit should remain. . ." See also Jn. 6:70 referring to the same choice. Clearly, Judas was chosen, but not saved.

I would agree with this interpretation of this passage.  They are correct in stating that the context shows that Jesus was referring to them being disciples of Him.  But this does not undermine the doctrine of election.

Acts 13:48 (Ac13:46-52)

Armenians point out that the participle translated "had been appointed to"  is the middle-passive voice form.In Greek, the same form is used to designate both the middle voice and the passive voice. The NASB translates it in the passive voice (the subject receives the action). However, if it is translated in the middle voice (the subject initiates the action), the passage would read ". . .as many as set themselves to eternal life believed" (cf. 1 Cor. 16:15 where the same participle is translated in the middle voice). This translation resolves the difficulty.

The context (see v. 46) indicates that Luke intended the middle voice in verse 48. In vv. 46, Paul says of the Jews, "…you repudiate it (the gospel), and judge yourselves unworthy of eternal life." Luke is purposefully contrasting the Jews' response to that of the Gentiles, who "began rejoicing and glorifying the word of the Lord; and as many as had set themselves to eternal life believed."

Because of this grammatical ambiguity, neither view should base its position on this passage.

Even Luke intended it to say “as many as set themselves to / chose eternal life believed” this can quite easily fit in with the doctrine of election.  For the Bible says that no one seeks life (Rom 3:11) and that God acts in all men causing them to turn to Him.  For those in Acts turning to God are, you could argue, working out their salvation.  So Philippians 2:12-13 can fairly be used to explain what happened:  “..Work out your salvation with fear and trembling; for it is God who is at work in you, both to will and to work for His good pleasure.”  This clearly shows that the act of us choosing God is in fact Him acting in us.

Although Calvinists should not use this to base their position on, they can use other passages (e.g. 2:47, 16:14, 17L26-27, 18:9-10 from Acts alone – although these in Acts aren’t perfect)

Romans 9:16,22,23 (Rom8-11)

Galatians 1:15,16

Armenians would point out that Paul's election and calling were based on God's foreknowledge of Paul's decision to believe. Some Armenians acknowledge that Paul may have been unconditionally elected and irresistibly called by God, but point out that this does not prove that God deals with all people in this way. There is no reason to think that God cannot deal with some people differently than others. Armenians would argue that the burden is on the Calvinist to demonstrate not just that God elected someone unconditionally, but that he elects all Christians in this way.

Briefly:

No one seeks God (Rom 3:10-12), so if God only chose those whom He knew would believe, He would foreknow that no one would turn to Him and believe, and He would thus choose no-one.  So those who have faith are those chosen by God, who has chosen them entirely by grace, without any merit of theirs (including their faith – which is a gift from God Rom12:3, 1Cor12:7-9).  Their response to God is Him acting in them.

I don’t have the space to go through everything.  See Jn6:44,65 above.

Ephesians 1:4,5 (Eph1)

Armenians agree that vs. 4 is teaching God's election of the believer to salvation.

However, they call attention to the significance of the phrase "in Him." This phrase, it is argued, means that Christ was the chosen One (Is. 42:1) and that believers corporately participate in his closeness because they are baptized into him when they believe (1 Cor. 12:13; Eph. 1:13).

With regard to vs. 5, Armenians hold that this passage is referring not to God's choice of who will be saved, but of God's choice that those who believe will be ultimately glorified. They interpret "adoption as sons" as a reference to the glorification of believers (cf. Rom. 8:23 for Paul's use of "adoption" in this way).

Armenians also insist that God's election and predestination are based on his foreknowledge of our choice to believe in Christ (1 Pet. 1:1,2*; Rom. 8:29).

Well this entire argument is lacking.  So are they now saying that baptism is a requirement for salvation?  The first and second paragraphs above do not hold up in light of Scripture.  The first paragraph is not how it is.  With the second paragraph I’ll agree that “adoption as sons” is a reference to glorification, but God still predestined from eternity that some would be glorified.  This glorification is directly connected with salvation; God choosing those who will be glorified is Him choosing those who will be saved (as only those people saved will be glorified).  There is no reference to God conditioning His choosing on His foreknowledge of those who would accept Him; this statement goes against the rest of Scripture.

With 1Peter 1:1-2 and Romans 8:29, God foreknew those who He would save because He foreordained them.

2 Thessalonians 2:13 (2Th2)

Armenians point out that “from the beginning” could refer to the beginning of their Christian lives (i.e., conversion). Paul uses this same phrase in Phil. 4:15 to refer to people’s conversion. If the term “salvation” refers to glorification (see vs. 14) or spiritual maturity (1 Thess. 5:23), Paul is simply reminding them of God’s purpose for their lives.

The words translated as “from (the) beginning, can also be meaning “(as) first fruits”. 

So as you can see “as first fruits” is the preferred word from internal evidence, but “from the beginning” is also a serious possibility.  Using the word “as first fruits” renders the Armenian argument above void.  But regarding the words “from the beginning” the Armenian argument is not possible because of the context of the passage.  Verse 11 says that God has sent a deluding influence causing all men to believe what is false, and out of this God chose “from eternity/the beginning” those who will be saved.

1 Peter 2:8 (1Pe2:1-10)

Armenians point out that the specific cause for their stumbling is not God, but that "they are disobedient to the word." Peter is not saying that God made them disobey or those they cannot repent. He is simply saying that God has ordained judgment for those who reject the gospel.

This argument is also rubbish because of what the verse clearly states.

The only question about this verse is: Is the doom they are appointed to their stumbling or their disobedience?  Probably their disobedience.

Jude 4

Armenians point out that the participle “previously marked out” can also be translated “previously written about.” For an example of this usage, see Rom. 15:4. Since Jude goes on to cite several recorded examples of the destruction of ungodly persons (vss. 5-18), this translation is seen as preferable.

They are correct in saying “written down” is a better translation.  The question now is: Is this meaning God writing down those damned from eternity or written prediction of the doom of those people?  The latter interpretation is most likely, so the Armenian argument here is correct.  This has no conflict with the doctrine of election.

I will note that although this section of my site is entirely devoted to the complex issue of Predestination, this doctrine is NOT essential to salvation and that those who disagree with me are not lost because of this. I have many friends who are my brothers in Christ, who are Armenian, and this does not cause me to think any less of their faith, and I hope and pray it never will. I hope I accurately show how my understanding of this issue progressed from nothing to something. As it stands there is more I need to learn on this topic than I currently know. Any inconsistencies between my pages (I know of none but...) are due to my knowledge and understanding growing as I studied scripture and both sides of the debate equally. I recognize there are many Christians out there (both Armenian and Calvinist) who understand Predestination better than I do, and I have much to learn from them. I started this study originally because I was sick of not understanding this issue, but it quickly turned into a prayerful study of God Himself and His involvement in nature. As God's ways are above mine I will never completely understand this topic, and it is guaranteed that I will make many errors along the way. Having said that, I hope that those who may visit this site will learn something more from scripture through reading my studies, as I have learned a huge amount in making them.

Futher study on predestination

Have you ever asked yourself, What is predestination? How does free will fit in? What about man's sinfulness and God's sovereignty? Is predestination a fair doctrine or does it make God out to be dispassionate and domineering? I will attempt to answer those questions.
      Predestination is the doctrine that God alone chooses (elects) who is saved. He makes His choice independent of any quality or condition in sinful man. He does not look into a person and recognize something good nor does He look into the future to see who would choose Him (see john 6:44,Eph 2:8-9,Rom 3:12).He elects people to salvation purely on the basis of His good pleasure.Those not elected are not saved.He does this because He is sovereign;that is,He has the absolute authority, right, and ability to do with His creation as He pleases.He has the right to elect some to salvation and let all the rest go their natural way: to hell. This is predestination.
      In response to this definition, some will protest, "Unfair!" It may seem so at first, but you will see that it is quite fair. More importantly, it is biblical.To help you understand predestination,I would like to address several areas in order:

1. The Eternal Covenant
2. Man's Sinful Condition
3. The Result of Sinful Man's Condition
4. Man's Free Will
5. The Necessity of Predestination
6. God's Sovereign Election
7. Conclusion
8. Objections Answered

     1)  The Eternal Covenant
     Usually, the best place to start a study is at the beginning, and in order to understand predestination better we need to start at its beginning. Its origin can be found in what is called the Eternal Covenant. Hebrews 13:20 says, "May the God of peace, who through the blood of the eternal covenant brought back from the dead our Lord Jesus, that great Shepherd of the sheep." If you have never heard of the eternal covenant, then you need to familiarize yourself with it because it is vital to a proper understanding of one of the ways God deals with His people. Essentially, God works covenantally.
      A Covenant is a pact or agreement between two parties. It is a contract. The Old and New Testaments are really the Old and New Covenants. Testament comes from the Latin testamentum, which means covenant. In the O.T. the Hebrew word for covenant is always b'rith. In the N.T. it is always diatheke. There are OT covenants that God made with individuals, i.e. Adam (Gen. 2:15-17), Noah (Gen. 9:12-16), Abraham (Gen. 17), the Israelites at Mount Sinai (Ex. 34:28), and David (Sam. 7:12-16), etc., and in the NT there is the New Covenant (Luke 22:20; Matt. 26:28; Heb. 7:22) that was prophesied in Jer. 31:31-37.
      The Eternal Covenant, then, is the covenant made between God the Father and the Son with regard to the elect. This covenant was made before the universe was created and it consisted of the Father promising to bring to the Son all whom the Father had given the Son. "And this is the will of him who sent me, that I shall lose none of all that he has given me, but raise them up at the last day...I pray for them. I am not praying for the world, but for those you have given me, for they are yours...Father, I want those you have given me to be with me where I am, and to see my glory, the glory you have given me because you loved me before the creation of the world" ( John 6:39;17:9,24, NIV).
      In the Eternal Covenant, the Father would prepare the Son a body (Luke 1:35; Heb. 10:5); give the Son the Spirit without measure (Is. 43:1,2; 61:1); always support and comfort the Son (Is. 42:1-7; 49:8); deliver the Son from the power of death (Ps. 2); bring to the Son all whom the Father had given Him (John 6:39; 17:9,24); and give the Son a number of redeemed that no one could number (Ps. 22:27; 72:17). The Son's part was to assume human nature (Gal. 4:4,5; Heb. 2:10,11,14,15); be under the Law (Ps. 40:8; Gal. 4:4,5; Phil. 2:5-8); and to bear the sins of His people (Isaiah 53:12; John 10:11,15; 1 Pet. 2:24).
      In the Eternal Covenant we see that God has given a certain number of people to the Son and that the Son came to redeem them, to "lose none of them" (John 6:39). We can conclude from this that God had in mind a certain people whom would be His elect. Since God knows all things, He knows those whom He has chosen. Hence, they are predestined from the very beginning of time.

      2) Man's Sinful Condition
      Man is sinful. He does not become a sinner by sinning. He sins because he is a sinner. He is depraved, which means that sin has corrupted all that he is: mind, soul, spirit, emotions, and body. Man is so engulfed in sin, so thoroughly touched by it, that there is nothing in him that merits or enables salvation. He, therefore, is born into a state of condemnation: "...and [we] were by nature children of wrath, even as the rest" (Eph. 2:3). This is not to say that we are as evil as we can be, rather, that all of what we are is affected by sin.
      The heart is often referred to in scripture as the deepest part of man and the center of his spiritual nature (Esther 7:5; 1 Cor. 7:37; Rom. 6:17; Deut. 29:4). From the heart man understands (Prov. 8:5), reflects (Luke 2:19), feels joy (Isa. 65:14), and experiences pain (Prov. 25:20). Because of his depravity (sinful condition), man's heart is not only impure but desperately sick: "The heart is more deceitful than all else and is desperately sick; who can understand it?" (Jer. 17:9). Also, it is out of the heart that we speak "...out of the overflow of the heart the mouth speaks" (Matt. 12:34), and what is in the heart of the person is what comes out of him: "For from within, out of the heart of men, proceed evil thoughts, fornications, thefts, murders, adulteries, deeds of coveting and wickedness, as well as deceit, sensuality, envy, slander, pride and foolishness. All these evil things proceed from within and defile the man" (Mark 7:21-23). It follows then that man's understanding, reflection, feelings, and experiences are all stained by sin.
      The unregenerate person is a slave of sin: "For when you were slaves of sin you were free in regard to righteousness" (Rom. 6:20). That means that doing good is not a concern or need of the unbeliever--and naturally so for a person with a sinful nature. The unregenerate is inherently against God: "by abolishing in His flesh the enmity...thus establishing peace" (Eph. 2:15). Enmity is hatred, bitterness, and malice toward an enemy. That was our relationship to God prior to salvation; there was enmity between us.
      So, the Bible reveals the true nature of man. It is evil (Mark 7:21-23), sick (Jer. 17:9), a slave of sin (Rom. 6:20), at enmity with God (Eph. 2:15), and, of course, naturally belongs in hell (Eph. 2:3). It then follows that out of his utterly sinful condition, only sinful desires and effects will follow. The question must then be asked, "How can a sinful person ever desire God?"

      3) The Result of Man's Sinful Condition
      Because of man's sinfulness, he is unable to understand God, seek God, or do any thing good: "...both Jews and Greeks are all under sin as it is written, 'There is none righteous, not even one; there is none who understands, there is none who seeks for God; all have turned aside, together they have become useless; there is none who does good, there is not even one'" (Rom. 3:9-12).
      Because of his sinfulness, he loves darkness rather than light; he loves evil rather than good: "And this is the judgment, that the light is come into the world, and men loved the darkness rather than the light; for their deeds were evil" (John 3:19).
      Because of his depravity, he is incapable of accepting the things of God or understanding them: "But a natural man does not accept the things of the Spirit of God; for they are foolishness to him, and he cannot understand them, because they are spiritually appraised" (1 Cor. 2:14). The natural man is the unregenerate man. The natural man cannot understand the things of God. Notice it does not say, "has trouble understanding," or "can if he's sincere," or "will be able to if he chooses God." It says he cannot understand. Salvation is one of those "things of God," and so is the understanding of being lost, of being a sinner, of needing repentance, etc. All of these are out of reach of the natural man. He cannot understand them.
      So, in light of these scriptures, how can an unbeliever come to an understanding that he needs salvation if the Bible teaches that he cannot understand his need (1 Cor. 2:14), that his nature is evil (Mark 7:21-23) and that he does not seek God (Rom. 3:11)? It would seem that man's sinful condition does not permit him to desire, understand, or want God. What effect, then, does this condition have upon his free will?

      4) Man's Free Will
      Many believe that man, by his free will, by something that resides in him, is completely able to independently accept or reject God. But this belief is not supported in scripture. As I stated above, man's will by nature is sinful. What then will a sinful free will choose? It will choose sin. His free will, then, would never allow Him to reach out to God.
      But we must ask, "What is free will?". Generally it is accepted to mean the freedom to choose according to one's desires. This seems true. But someone is only as free as his nature is free. His will is limited to that which is within his nature. The unregenerate can only choose what his nature allows him to choose. Since he is full of sin, not goodness, his choices can only be sinful.
      In other words, a person can choose to do only that which his nature allows him to do. He cannot simply will to suddenly vanish into thin air or fly like Superman because he is incapable of such feats; his nature limits him. So too with the nature of fallen man. He is severely limited by what he can and cannot do.
      The sinful man:

• cannot understand spiritual things (1 Cor. 2:14).
• is full of evil (Mark 7:21-23).
• does not seek for God (Rom. 3:11).
• is lawless, rebellious, unholy, and profane (1 Tim. 1:9).

      How then can the good desire to want God come out of the unsaved's evil heart? It cannot! How is he able, in his sinful free will, to desire God when his inclinations are always to reject Him? He cannot. How can he, with his blind and sinful will that is deadened, hardened, and enslaved by sin (Rom. 6:20) ever choose God? He cannot! It is impossible. That's why Jesus said, "With man this is impossible, but with God all things are possible" (Matthew 19:26, NIV).
      But some still maintain that God works on a person and slowly teaches and guides him or her into believing. Others say that there is something in a person's free will that enables him to choose God. They maintain that everyone is equally able to accept or reject. But if they are equally free and equally able, then why don't they all equally accept God, or why don't they all equally choose to reject Him? Why are there variations in choice? Are the variations a result of a tendency that God gave them? But God made them that way. Is it because of their environment? But God put them there. Is it because of some physical inclination? But God gave them their bodies. Is it because of their parents' influence? But God gave them their parents.
      The fact remains, man is not entirely free; he is sinfully free. The unsaved can act freely, but only within the limits of their sinful nature which cannot understand spiritual things (1 Cor. 2:14), does not seek for God (Rom. 3:11), hates God, and is in slavery to sin (Rom. 6:17,20), etc. That is why Jesus said, "No one can come to Me, unless the Father who sent Me draws him..." (John 6:44), and, "No one can come to Me, unless it has been granted him from the Father" (John 6:65). These are not the statements one would hope to find if the sinner were so free to choose to accept or reject God.

      5) The Necessity of Predestination
      I've laid the foundation: Man is completely a sinner who is incapable of understanding and coming to God and has a sinful free will capable only of rejecting God. Therefore, in order for salvation to occur, God must predestine. It can be no other way. If this is so, then there should be verses supporting it. There are:

• Acts 13:48: And when the Gentiles heard this, they began rejoicing and glorifying the word of the Lord; AND AS MANY AS HAD BEEN APPOINTED TO ETERNAL LIFE BELIEVED.
• John 1:12-13: But as many as received Him, to them He gave the right to become children of God, even to those who believe in His name, WHO WERE BORN NOT OF BLOOD, NOR OF THE WILL OF THE FLESH, NOR OF THE WILL OF MAN, BUT OF GOD.
• Philippians 1:29: FOR TO YOU IT HAS BEEN GRANTED FOR CHRIST'S SAKE, NOT ONLY TO BELIEVE IN HIM, but also to suffer for his sake.
• Romans 8:29-30: FOR WHOM HE FOREKNEW, HE ALSO PREDESTINED to become conformed to the image of His Son, that He might be the first-born among many brethren; and whom He predestined, these He also called; and whom He called, these He also justified; and whom He justified, these He also glorified.
• Ephesians 1:5: HE PREDESTINED US to adoption as sons through Jesus Christ to Himself, according to the kind intention of His will.
• Ephesians 1:11 Also WE HAVE OBTAINED AN INHERITANCE, HAVING BEEN PREDESTINED ACCORDING TO HIS PURPOSE who works all things after the counsel of His will.

      The preceding scriptures clearly show that the Lord is very active in salvation. He did not simply provide the means of salvation, the cross, but He also ensured the application of the blood of Christ through predestination.      

Please consider that it is God who:

1. - draws people to Himself (John 6:44,65).
2. - creates a clean heart (Psalm 51:10).
3. - appoints people to believe (Acts 13:48).
4. - works faith in the believer (John 6:28-29).
5. - chooses who is to be holy and blameless (Eph. 1:4).
6. - chooses us for salvation (2 Thess. 2:13-14).
7. - grants the act of believing (Phil. 1:29).
8. - grants repentance (2 Tim. 2:24-26).
9. - calls according to His purpose (2 Tim. 1:9).
10. - causes us to be born again (1 Pet. 1:3).
11. - predestines us to salvation (Rom. 8:29-30).
12. - predestines us to adoption (Eph. 1:5).
13. - predestines us according to His purpose (Eph. 1:11).
14. - makes us born again not by our will but by His will (John 1:12-13).

It is man who:

1. - is deceitful and desperately sick (Jer. 17:9).
2. - is full of evil (Mark 7:21-23).
3. - loves darkness rather than light (John 3:19).
4. - is unrighteous, does not understand, does not seek for God (Rom. 3:10-12).
5. - is helpless and ungodly (Rom. 5:6).
6. - is dead in his trespasses and sins (Eph. 2:1).
7. - is by nature a child of wrath (Eph. 2:3).
8. - cannot understand spiritual things (1 Cor. 2:14).
9. - is a slave of sin (Rom. 6:16-20).

      How can it be any other way than God's loving predestination to make our salvation not only possible, but also a reality? Left to man, salvation is impossible: "When the disciples heard this, they were greatly astonished and asked, ‘Who then can be saved?' Jesus looked at them and said, ‘With man this is impossible, but with God all things are possible'" (Matthew 19:25-26). That is why it must be God who opens the heart: "And a certain woman named Lydia, from the city of Thyatira, a seller of purple fabrics, a worshiper of God, was listening; and the Lord opened her heart to respond to the things spoken by Paul" (Acts 16:14).
      This is what truly glorifies God, that in His infinite mercy He is gracious enough to save those who would always reject Him, always hate Him, and always malign Him. Praise Him and His love!

      6) God's Sovereign Election

      God is sovereign. Sovereignty means that God is supreme in power and authority, that He answers to no one, and that He may do as He pleases for whatever reason He chooses. "Declaring the end from the beginning and from ancient times things which have not been done, saying, 'My purpose will be established, and I will accomplish all My good pleasure'" (Isaiah 46:10); "...to do whatever Thy hand and Thy purpose predestined to occur" (Acts 4:28); "...this Man [Jesus], delivered up by the predetermined plan and foreknowledge of God, you nailed to a cross..." (Acts 2:23).
      Out of a people of utter sinfulness and inability, God has chosen, by His sovereign grace, to elect some into salvation and not others. Remember, there is nothing in man that merits any favor, blessing, or mercy whatsoever. For there is no favoritism with God (Rom. 2:11). Each and every person is entirely worthy of wrath and incapable of saving himself. That is why God has chosen a people to Himself out of the good pleasure of His heart. Because without His choosing, none would ever come to Him. Therefore, predestination is a loving doctrine: "...In love He predestined us to adoption as sons through Jesus Christ..." (Eph. 1:4,5).
      He chooses some and ignores others not because of what the person has done, or what is foreknown that he would do, but simply because of God's sovereign choice: "[God] who has saved us, and called us with a holy calling, not according to our works, but according to His own purpose and grace which was granted us in Christ Jesus from all eternity" (2 Tim. 1:9); and, "for though the twins had not done anything good or bad, in order that God's purpose according to His choice might stand, not because of works, but because of Him who calls, it was said to her, 'The older will serve the younger.' Just as it is written, 'Jacob I loved, but Esau I hated'" (Rom. 9:11-13; see also, Psalm 11:5).

      Sovereignty is why God has mercy on whom He desires and hardens whom He desires: "For He says to Moses, 'I will have mercy on whom I have mercy, and I will have compassion on whom I have compassion.' So then it does not depend on the man who wills or the man who runs, but on God who has mercy...So then He has mercy on whom He desires, and He hardens whom He desires" (Rom. 9:15,16,18). This is sovereignty! It is God who is in control.
      Some He has elected to salvation, others He has not: "...for they stumble because they are disobedient to the word, and to this doom they were also appointed" (1 Pet. 2:8); And, "What if God, although willing to demonstrate His wrath and to make His power known, endured with much patience vessels of wrath prepared for destruction? And He did so in order that He might make known the riches of His glory upon vessels of mercy, which He prepared beforehand for glory" (Rom. 9:22-23). It seems quite clear that God prepares some for mercy and not others. That is sovereignty.

      7) CONCLUSION

      With a better understanding of scripture, predestination is not the tyrannical doctrine that so many make it out to be. Predestination is really the manifestation of God's mercy and love. It ensures the salvation of the ones He has called. It properly reveals the true nature of man to be utterly sinful, rebellious, and antagonistic to God. It puts God in total sovereign control, where He rightfully belongs. It removes man's ability to take any credit at all for salvation, because even the act of believing could not be self-authored in a sinful free will. And, finally, it reveals the greatness of God's mercy and love and causes the saved to rest in the knowledge that it was God who made their salvation sure, and not their own faulty, sinful wills.

      8) Objections Answered

      1) How does this doctrine of predestination fit in with a loving God?
      But predestination is loving. Without the loving predestination of God (Eph. 1:4,5) no one would ever be saved. All would go to hell.

      2) If God predestines us, and our sinful wills would never allow us to seek God, then wouldn't God be violating the wills of those He calls?
      No, because He doesn't violate their wills when He regenerates them first. Since God calls (Rom. 8:28-30), He first regenerates the nature of the person called. Since the person is then regenerate, with a new nature (2 Cor. 5:17), he is then able to desire God. Therefore, God does not violate his will.
      But some say that faith brings regeneration. Again I ask: How can an unregenerate person have faith in the true God? He cannot. It is regeneration that brings faith.

      3) Does this mean that even if you wanted to be saved you couldn't if you're not predestined?
      This question doesn't reflect a proper understanding of the condition of man. The unsaved don't want salvation or the true God, so they wouldn't ever seek salvation. Also, anyone who truly desires salvation is only wanting it because the Lord is drawing him.

      4) Doesn't Romans 8:29 prove that God looked into the future and foreknew who would accept Him?: "For whom He foreknew, He also predestined to become conformed to the image of His Son, that He might be the first-born among many brethren; and whom He predestined, these He also called."
      There are two reasons why these verses cannot be used to support that idea. First, if you read the verse, there is a key word that is often missed: "also." The verse says that the ones foreknown are ALSO predestined. In other words, the same ones foreknown are the ones predestined. It does not say that He foreknew all and predestined some; otherwise it would say, "Of those He foreknew, some He predestined." It says He ALSO predestined those whom He foreknew. The foreknown are the group He has predestined to be saved.   
      Second, God only "knows" believers. He does not "know" unbelievers. Matt. 7:22-23 says, "Many will say to Me on that day, 'Lord, Lord, did we not prophesy in Your name, and in Your name cast out demons, and in your name perform many miracles?' And then I will declare to them, 'I NEVER KNEW YOU; depart from Me, you who practice lawlessness.'"
      John 10:27 says, "My sheep hear My voice, and I KNOW THEM, and they follow Me";
      John 13:18 says, "I do not speak of all of you, I KNOW THE ONES I HAVE CHOSEN..."
      Gal. 4:9 says, "But now that you have come to know God, or rather TO BE KNOWN by Him..."
      2 Tim. 2:19 says, "...The Lord KNOWS those who are His..."
      These verses show a "knowing" that is related to salvation. Only Christians are "known." Only the foreKNOWN are predestined. God foreknew; that is, He foreloved His chosen ones and predestined them into salvation. God knows believers, hence the word "foreknown." Therefore, Rom. 8:29 doesn't support the idea that God looked into the future to see who would pick Him.
      In addition, God would not look into a person to see if he would pick Him, because if that were so, then God's choice would depend upon Man's choice and God would not be sovereign.

      5) What about the verses that suggest you choose God?
      "Whosoever will believe...He who receives... etc." We see in Scripture both God's and Man's hands in salvation. God elects, predestines, draws, and saves. Man chooses, but only after God has saved him (see objection number 2). We experience and understand the act of choosing, but this is because we do so after we're regenerate. If someone says that he freely chose to accept God and that predestination is untrue, then he is establishing doctrine by his experience. This is something that is to be avoided.
      Acts 13:48 describes the "whosoever." They are the ones who are appointed to believe: "...and all who were appointed for eternal life believed." It is obvious from this verse that the ones who believe are the ones who are appointed by God to believe. Remember also Philippians 1:29: "For to you it has been granted for Christ's sake, not only to believe in Him, but also to suffer for His sake." God grants that the elect believe. That is why we are born again not of our wills but of the will of God (John 1:12-13).

      6) But it isn't fair to only choose some.
      Fairness is that we all go to hell. ALL people deserve damnation (Eph. 2:3). God would be perfectly just to let all slide into the eternal abyss of damnation--and He would still be just as loving, because that is His nature. God doesn't owe us anything. The question isn't "Why would He only choose SOME?"; but rather, "Why did He choose ANY?"

      7) What about verses like "I will draw all men to Myself" (John 12:32)?
      The "all" are only the Christians. This may sound absurd at first. The Bible says that Jesus is the only way to the Father (John 14:6) and that there is no other name under heaven by which a man may be saved (Acts 4:12). Can the "all" here mean everyone? What about those who never heard the gospel, like the Aborigines 100 years before Christ? Does the gospel message apply to them? I ask this because how can anyone be saved apart from Jesus, especially when they haven't had the opportunity to hear the gospel? It seems to me that the "all" of this verse must apply to the elect.
      Incidentally, a discussion of Romans 5:18 sheds light on the biblical usage of "all" when it says, "...there resulted justification of life to all men" (NASB). The "all" there obviously cannot mean everyone, but only a select group, i.e., "the many" spoken of in the following verse.
      In addition, other verses worth examining in this context are 1 Cor. 15:22 and 2 Cor. 5:14. It says in 1 Cor. 15:22, "For as in Adam all die, so in Christ all will be made alive." Adam represented everyone in his death. Christ represented the elect in His death as is evidenced by the fact that the only ones who are made alive in Christ (Rom. 6:11; 8:10) are the Christians. The "all" can only be the elect.
      2 Cor. 5:14 says, "For Christ's love compels us, because we are convinced that one died for all, and therefore all died." The only ones who die in Christ (Rom. 6:8) are the Christians. The "all" can only be the elect.
      If you are interested in a more thorough analysis of verses that say things like "God wants all men to be saved" then click on "All Men Saved."

      8) But I actually did choose to accept God.
      That is right. You did. But only because God first regenerated you, freed your will from sin, and thereby allowed you to be able to choose Him. Regeneration precedes faith. The regenerated person is no longer the slave of sin (Rom. 6:6) and is therefore able to desire God. He then DOES choose God.
      This act of regeneration is what God does. Remember, your believing is something God has given you: "For to you it has been granted for Christ's sake, not only to believe in Him, but also to suffer for His sake" (Phil. 1:29); Also, "Jesus answered and said to them, 'This is the work of God, that you believe in Him whom He has sent'" (John 6:29); And, "...and as many as had been appointed to eternal life believed" (Acts 13:48).
      This is also why we are born again not by our own wills, but the will of God: "But as many as received Him...[these] were born not of blood, nor of the will of the flesh, nor of the will of man, but of God" (John 1:12,13).